Upwork Web Development: PHP Test Answers

In this post you’ll have all the Upwork PHP Test answers of Upwork Web Development category with more than 150 questions and answers – recently updated.
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Upwork XHTML 1.0 test Answer – Part 1

In this post you will find more then 100 Answers of Upwork XHTML 1.0 test questions, please press CTRL + F to find your desired answers of the XHTML 1.0 test.
1. Which of these is well formed?
 Answers: • <body>
 2. What’s the most common XHTML DTD?
 Answers: • Transitional
 3. Which of these frame references is a well formed 2 column frame?
 Answers: • <frameset cols=”50%,50%”> <frame src=”frame-1.html”> <frame src=”frame-2.html”> </frameset>
 4. When referencing an image map, what attribute is assigned to the image?
 Answers: • ismap
 5. Which of the following is something you can do in XHTML that you can’t do in HTML?
 Answers: • Include processing instructions
 6. Which of these are the correct structure of a definition list?
 Answers: • <dl> <dt>Car</dt> <dd>Convertible</dd> </dl>
 7. What would you put inside of a <![CDATA[ …. ]]> element?
 Answers: • Text that contains characters that would otherwise need to be escaped.
 8. Which is the correct method of defining the default option that’s in the select group?
 Answers: • <select name=”list” id=”list”> <option value=”1″ >One</option> <option value=”2″>Two</option> <option value=”3″ selected=”selected”>three</option> </s
 9. Which of the following is the correct document structure?
 Answers: • <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC “-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN” http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd> <html xmlns=”http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml”> <head> <title>Title</title> </head>
 10. What is the correct usage of the label element?
 Answers: • <form method=”post” action=”action.php”> <label for=”name”>Name</label> <input type=”text” name=”name” id=”name” /> </form>
 11. What tag is used to define italics besides <i>?
 Answers: • <em>
 12. What is the correct formatting for including JavaScript?
 Answers: • <script type=”text/javascript”></script>
 13. Which of these is an inline element by default?
 Answers: • span
 14. Which is the correct method of including an inline style?
 Answers: • <div class=”good-morning”><h1 style=”margin: 0; padding: 0;”>Good morning!</h1></div>
 15. To set parameters within the object tag, you would use which tag?
 Answers: • <param>
 16. What does XSLT stand for?
 Answers: • Extensible Stylesheet Language Transformations
 17. What is the correct value for opening a link in a new window?
 Answers: • target=”_new”
 18. How is the default namespace usually included on an XHTML document?
 Answers: • <html xmlns=”http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml”>
 19. Which of the following elements cannot go in the <head> tag
 Answers: • <header>
 20. What tag is used to store the description of the document?
 Answers: • <meta>
 21. Which of the following is the correct way to start a new line in XHTML?
 Answers: • <br />
 22. The correct tag for defining a table header cell is:
 Answers: • <th>
 23. What XHTML DTD is used most often?
 Answers: • Transitional
 24. Which is NOT an acceptable XHTML DOCTYPE?
 Answers: • <!DOCTYPE html>
 25. Which type attribute minimization is allowed in XHTML?
 Answers: • Attibute minimization is not allowed in XHTML
 26. What does DTD stand for?
 Answers: • document type declaration
 27. Which of these is a correct application of a class?
 Answers: • <span class=”class”>span</span>
 28. How many levels of the heading tag (<h1>,<h2>, etc.) are allowed in XHTML?
 Answers: • 6
 29. In XHTML the correct method of defining a meta tag is:
 Answers: • <meta name=”description” content=”My Website” />
 30. What is the special character value for an non-breaking space?
 Answers: • &nbsp;
 31. Scripts should be loaded where?
 Answers: • <head></head>
 32. What tag is used to create a table row?
 Answers: • <tr>
 33. What is the ‘alt’ attribute use for?
 Answers: • To specify alternative text for an image
 34. Which of these is a well-formed input field?
 Answers: • <input type=”text” name=”name” id=”id” />
 35. Who wrote the current XHTML standard?
 Answers: • The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
 36. XHTML elements should always be written in:
 Answers: • lower case
 37. XHTML is HTML defined as what type of application?
 Answers: • XML
 38. What does XHTML stand for?
 Answers: • Extensible hypertext markup language
 39. What is the primary difference between HTML and XHTML?
 Answers: • XHTML documents must be well-formed and valid according to the XHTML schema.
 40. Which of the following is valid XHTML?
 Answers: • <p class=”bodyPara”>Foo bar!</p>
 41. Which of the following creates a button?
 Answers: • <input type=”button” value=”Hello world!”>
 42. What does DOM stand for?
 Answers: • document object model
 43. Which of these are well-formed nesting?
 Answers: • <div><h1>Goodbye!</h1></div>
 44. Fill in the blank for the ‘rel’ attribute used in the following: <link href=”source.css” type=”text/css” rel=”__”
 Answers: • stylesheet
 45. Which of these links will validate in XHTML 1.0 Strict?
 Answers: • <a class=”link” href=”page.html”>Link</a>
 46. Choose the correct XHTML break tag from the following:
 Answers: • <br />
 47. Which of the following will set up a numbered list?
 Answers: • <ol> <li>One</li> <li>Two</li> <li>Three</li> </ol>
 48. Which element is correctly formatted XHTML?
 Answers: • <li>One</li>
 49. What’s the right way to write a comment in XHTML?
 Answers: • <!– … –>
 50. What is the correct usage of a well formed heading tag?
 Answers: • <h3>Heading</h3>
 51. Which XHTML has properly nested elements?
 Answers: • <p><i>Here is some text</i></p>
 52. The <title> tag goes inside what tag?
 Answers: • <head></head>
 53. What does the attribute ‘href” specify?
 Answers: • URL
 54. The DOCTYPE declaration is required:
 Answers: • All of these
 55. Which is the correct value for an email link?
 Answers: • <a href=”mailto:joe@domain.com”>joe@domain.com</a>
 56. The correct tag for defining a table row is:
 Answers: • <tr>
 57. Which of the following is ‘well-formed’ XHTML format?
 Answers: • <div id=”groovy”>Ain’t it?</div>
 58. What is the proper tag for comments in XHTML?
 Answers: • <!–comment–>
 59. What does it mean to say that an XHTML document is ‘well-formed’?
 Answers: • All of these.
 60. What is the proper syntax for a horizontal line?
 Answers: • <hr />
 61. What does <strong> tag do to text?
 Answers: • bold
 62. Which of the following is the correct way to use a paragraph in XHTML?
 Answers: • <p></p>
 63. Which of these elements are form elements?
 Answers: • All of these
 64. Which of the following are correctly formatted?
 Answers: • <ul><li><p>Some content</p></li></ul>
 65. Which of the following is valid XHTML?
 Answers: • <body><p><b>Ferret!</b></p><p>Another ferret!</p></body>
 66. Which is NOT a valid value for the ‘target’ attribute?
 Answers: • _inner
 67. The XML namespace attribute is mandatory in:
 Answers: • All of these
 68. In the opening form tag, which is a mandatory attribute?
 Answers: • action
 69. Which of these is a valid conditional statement to target all versions of IE.
 Answers: • <!–[if IE]> <link href=”styles.css” rel=”stylesheet”/> <![endif]–>
 70. Which of these, by default, is a block-level element?
 Answers: • p
 71. Which browser does NOT support XHTML?
 Answers: • Internet Explorer 8
 72. Which is the correct formatting of an object tag?
 Answers: • <object type=”application/x-shockwave-flash” data=”silly.swf” width=”700″ height=”500″></object>
 73. Which of the following is a correct processing instruction?
 Answers: • <?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”UTF-8″?>
 74. Which of these is correct application of an anchor link?
 Answers: • <a href=”#link”>Link</a> <div id=”link”>Here</div>
 75. Which of the following is NOT one of the DTD’s for XHTML?
 Answers: • Quirks
 76. Which of these is the correct XHTML usage of the Language attribute?
 Answers: • <html xmlns=”http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml” xml:lang=”en”>
 77. Which is the correct XHTML for empty elements?
 Answers: • Go fly a kite<hr />
 78. What are the required elements for XHTML documents?
 Answers: • <html>, <head>, <title>, <body>
 79. Which of the following is a well formed table?
 Answers: • <table> <tr> <td>Cell</td> <td>Cell</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan=”2″>Cell</td> </tr> </table>
 80. The <base> tag goes inside what tag?
 Answers: • <head></head>
 81. In which tag do you define the XML namespace?
 Answers: • <html>
 82. Which DOCTYPE does not include deprecated elements(i.e. <font>)?
 Answers: • Strict
 83. To reload or redirect a page in a specified amount of time in XHTML, you would use which of the following?
 Answers: • <meta http-equiv=”refresh” content=”2;url=http://www.google.com/” />
 84. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using XHTML?
 Answers: • A browser will render it, even with errors.
 85. Which tag has NOT been deprecated with XHTML?
 Answers: • <textarea>
 86. How do XPath statements vary between HTML and XHTML?
 Answers: • The namespace is almost always required in XHTML.
 87. Which DOCTYPE does include deprecated elements(i.e. <font>)?
 Answers: • Transitional
 88. What is a namespace?
 Answers: • A predicate that is used to make a set of elements unique and avoid conflict
 89. Which of these image attributes are NOT supported?
 Answers: • action
 90. To embed an iframe on a web page, you would use which method?
 Answers: • <iframe class=”iframe-video” src=”video.mp3″></iframe>
 91. What is the difference between the @name and @id attributes?
 Answers: • HTML references elements by @name; XHTML can only reference elements by @id.
 92. Which tag has NOT been deprecated with XHTML?
 Answers: • <hr>
 93. Why shouldn’t you treat normally non-empty elements as empty elements (i.e., why shouldn’t you use ‘<p />’)?
 Answers: • HTML parsers will think you are declaring the element named ‘p /’, which is nonsense.
 94. Why should you make sure empty elements have a space before the close (i.e., <br /> instead of <br/>)?
 Answers: • Some browsers read <br/> as declaring the element named “br/”, which is nonsense.
 95. Attribute ‘name’ has been replaced with what attribute for the following elements: a, iframe, img?
 Answers: • id
 96. The correct method for including a stylesheet is:
 Answers: • All of these are correct
 97. What is the minimum sufficient XHTML document, not including declarations?
 Answers: • <html><head><title></title></head><body></body></html>
 98. Which is a correctly formatted nested bulleted list?
 Answers: • <ul> <li>Planes <ul> <li>Red</li> <li>White</li> <li>Blue</li> </ul> </li> <li>Trains</li> <li>Automobiles</li> </ul>
 99. In unicode support, what’s the difference between XHTML 1.1 and HTML 4.01?
 Answers: • HTML supports all unicode characters and non-characters; XHTML has a few restrictions.
 100. What is a correct document type declaration for XHTML?
 Answers: • <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC “-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN” “http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd”>
 101. What is the best practice for italicizing content?
 Answers: • <p style=”font-style:italic”>content</p>
 102. Why doesn’t the JavaScript command “document.write();” work in XHTML?
 Answers: • It results in malformed documents
 103. What is the difference between XHTML and HTML regarding whitespace?
 Answers: • In XHTML, all spans of whitespace are shortened to a single space; in HTML, they are preserved
 104. What is wrong with this doctype declaration? <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC “-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN” “http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd”/>
 Answers: • The doctype declaration has no closing tag.
 105. What happens if you do not include the XHTML default namespace in the declaration?
 Answers: • All XHTML elements must be preceded by ‘http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml:’
 106. How many parsing modes does XHTML have?
 Answers: • One
 107. What is the most proper MIME type for an XHTML document?
 Answers: • application/xhtml+xml
 108. Which of these is a correct <form> in XHTML?
 Answers: • “<form action=”formSubmit” method=”post”> Email: <input type=”text” id=”emailInput” /> Yes, subscribe me to your mailing list: <input type=”checkbox” checked=”checked” /> &
 109. Which of the following is valid XHTML?
 Answers: • <span style=”background-color: #abc;”>Foo &gt; bar</span>
 110. Which of the following character entities cannot be used in XHTML?
 Answers: • &nbsp;
 111. Why is getting the MIME type correct important?
 Answers: • If the browser doesn’t know it’s XHTML, then it won’t work right
 112. What happens if you put an XHTML <![CDATA[ …. ]]> element in HTML?
 Answers: • It is ignored as an incorrectly-formatted comment.
 113. What is the primary difference between XHTML 1.0 and XHTML 1.1?
 Answers: • XHTML 1.1 includes Ruby annotations
 114. What are the character encodings that are guaranteed to work properly for an XHTML document?
 Answers: • UTF-8 and UTF-16
 115. Which is a complete list of XHTML versions?
 Answers: • 1.0, 1.1, 5
 116. What is the correct formatting of a horizontal rule?
 Answers: • <rule>

Upwork Web Designing: XHTML 1.0 Test Answers

Here You will have all the test answers for Upwork XHTML 1.0 Test Answers of Upwork Web Designing category with more than 200 questions and answers – recently updated.
Please press Ctrl + F to find your required answer of the test and if you browse all the below mentioned 3 parts you will have all the answers of the Upwork XHTML 1.0 Test.
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Upwork Book keeping Test Answer – Part 2

Please check the Part 1 of Upwork book keeping test answers for more than 100 test answers. In this post you will have only 8 answers of the book keeping test.
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1. Gerald’s had opening total stockholders’ equity of $160,000. During the year, total assets increased by $240,000 and total liabilities increased by $120,000. Their net income was $180,000. No additional investments were made. However, some amount was paid as dividend during the year. What was the amount of the dividend paid?
Answers: • $220,000.

2. ‘2/10, net 30’ is an example of:
Answers: • Terms

3. A check issued by you, but not yet passed through the banking system, is:
Answers: • a standing order

4. Documents used to control a bank account include the following except
Answers: • a signature card

5. Account books are typically closed on a _________ basis.
Answers: • Yearly

6. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the following factors would explain an increase in them (Retained Earnings)?
Answers: • Net income.

7. A multiple-step income statement is thought to be more beneficial to financial users because of the revelation of important relationships. Which of the following is not separately identified in a multiple-step income statement?
Answers: • Income taxes

8. Accounts payable refer to the current
Answers: • Liability of a business or an organization

Software Testing Test Answer – Part 2

Here you will find all upwork Software testing test answers, please press CTRL + F to find your desired answer of the test questions.

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Code coverage?
Answers: • It is a form of Black-box testing

2. Usability testing indicates that the design and system should be modified if:
Answers: • all of the above

3. Which of the following statements about Equivalence partitioning is correct?
Answers: • A software testing technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of data from which test cases can be derived

4. What is Boundary value testing?
Answers: • Both a and b

5. Which of the following types of errors are uncovered in White-box testing?
Answers: • Behavioral errors

6. What is the name of the testing method in which (for each pair of input parameters) all the possible discrete combinations of parameters are passed on?
Answers: • Pairwise testing

7. Which of the following are the objectives of using a “test harness”?
Answers: • Creating reusable test logic to reduce maintenance and improve test coverage

8. In Bottom-up integration testing,
Answers: • No stubs need to be written

9. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Test Automation?
Answers: • Test Automation is the set of procedures used by organizations to ensure that a software product will meet its quality goals at the best value to the customer.

10. Performance testing is used for real-time systems only.
Answers: • True


11. ___________ testing is used to evaluate and understand the application’s reliability, scalability and interoperability when more users are added or the volume of data is increased.
Answers: • Performance

12. From the options given below which of the dynamic program analysis technique is aimed at improving application performance?
Answers: • Profiling

13. Which of the following tools supports traceability, recording of incidents, and scheduling of tests?
Answers: • Test management tool

14. Which of the following is not a Static testing methodology?
Answers: • System tests

15. Choose the correct description of a Stub in software testing:
Answers: • A Stub is a dummy procedure, module or unit that stands in for an unfinished portion of a system

16. Which of the following resources are tested by most of the Stress testing tools?
Answers: • Internal memory

17. The process of using a test case to test a specific unit of code, function, or capability is called:
Answers: • Test Script

18. Which of the following models of software development incorporates testing into the whole software development life cycle?
Answers: • V-Model

19. What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is carried out?
Answers: • Unit, Integration, System, Validation

20. The determination of adherence or non adherence to a compliance is carried out during:
Answers: • Inspection

21. What do you understand by the term “Monkey test”?
Answers: • It is random testing performed by automated testing tools

22. Which of the following is not included in Non-functional testing?
Answers: • Unit testing

23. The cursory examination of all the basic components of a software system to ensure that they work is called:
Answers: • Smoke testing

24. When a defect is detected and fixed, the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:
Answers: • Confirmation testing

25. Identify the defect which can be detected by Equivalence Partitioning Technique:
Answers: • Improper handling of input classes

26. Which of the following is not a part of System testing?
Answers: • Top-down integration testing

27. Which of the following Security testing concepts deals with the process of determining whether a requester is allowed to receive a service or perform an operation?
Answers: • Authorization

28. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Smoke testing and Sanity testing?
Answers: • A Smoke test adopts a shallow and wide approach whereas a Sanity test is a narrow regression test that focuses on one, or a few areas of functionality. Sanity testing is usually narrow and deep

29. From the following options, choose the best example which represents a reliability failure for an application:
Answers: • Random application termination

30. In which of the following testing methodologies does the automatic generation of efficient test procedures/vectors use models of system requirements and specified functionality?
Answers: • Model testing

31. Which of the following is true regarding Static Analysis tools?
Answers: • They help you find defects rather than failures

32. The review of a technical document such as requirements specs or a test plan, with the purpose of looking for problems and seeing what is missing, without fixing anything is called:
Answers: • Inspection

33. Which of the following options correctly defines the term “test harness”?
Answers: • It is a collection of software and test data configured to test a program unit by running it under varying conditions and monitoring its behavior and outputs

34. Which one of the following is a major benefit of verification early in the software development life cycle?
Answers: • It reduces defect multiplication

35. Identification of set-use pairs is accomplished during which of the following static analysis activities?
Answers: • Data flow analysis

36. What would be the appropriate result of a Stress test at its peak?
Answers: • A gradual performance slow-down leading to a catastrophic system halt

37. In which type of testing is random data generated for input into the software?
Answers: • Fuzz testing

38. Which of the following is incorrect for Black-box testing?
Answers: • It uses an internal perspective of the system to design test cases based on internal structure.

39. Which of the following statements is not true regarding capture/replay tools?
Answers: • They are used to capture and playback user requirements

40. The main focus of Black-box testing is:
Answers: • to test the functionality of the system as a whole

41. Which of the following is written by a programmer and is meant to call the function to be tested by passing test data to it?
Answers: • Driver

42. Which of the following types of testing emulates the real world use of a system and verifies that the product fulfills the intended requirements?
Answers: • User acceptance testing

43. What is the difference between Regression testing and Retesting?
Answers: • Retesting ensures that the original fault has been corrected while Regression testing checks for other unexpected side-effects

44. Which of the following testing occurs outside the development environment?
Answers: • Installation testing

45. The testing phase in which individual software modules are combined and tested as a group is called:
Answers: • Integration testing

46. Which of the following statements holds true for Verification and Validation?
Answers: • Validation is used to check if we are doing the right thing and Verification is used to check whether we have developed the software as per the client’s requirements or not.

47. The testing performed by external organizations or standards bodies to give greater guarantees of compliance is called:
Answers: • Conformance testing

48. Which of the following are benefits of automated testing?
Answers: • reusability

49. Beta testing is performed by:
Answers: • External users

50. Selecting the test inputs that are likely to reveal a failure associated with a particular defect is an example of the use of:
Answers: • Activity analysis

51. Which of the following test activities provides the maximum potential cost savings from the use of Computer-Aided Software Testing (CAST)?
Answers: • Test execution

52. Which of the following strategies are used for Integration testing?
Answers: • Any of the above strategies can be used

53. Which of the following is true about Sanity Testing?
Answers: • All of the above are true

54. Which of the following is false about software testing?
Answers: • Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage that low level modules never need testing

55. Which of the following is not a type of Incremental testing approach?
Answers: • Big-bang

56. What is the main reason for testing a software immediately before releasing it?
Answers: • To decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release

57. Which of the following types of testing is likely to benefit the most from the use of test tools that provide the test capture and replay facilities?
Answers: • Regression testing

Software Testing Test Answer – Part 1

Upwork Management Skills Test Answers – Part 2

Here you will find All Upwork Management Skills Test Answers, Please press CTRL + F to find your desired answers of the Management Skills test:

1. Which one of the following is not the function of Personnel Management?
Answers: • Training and development of employees.

2. Which of the following is generally an inappropriate reason for delegation?
Answers: • Someone else is better qualified to do the task that needs to be done.

3. Which of the following is a current liability of a business?
Answers: • Debtors

4. Which of the following is not a financial statement?
Answers: • Statement of Cash Flow

5. Long-term budgets are useful for those industries where the gestation period is long. Which of the following is not relevant to the above statement?
Answers: • Electricity

6. A tool to plot the duration of activities in a project and its dependencies is named after:
Answers: • Henry Gantt

7. Which of the following is not included in calculating working capital?
Answers: • Stock of work in progress

8. Which of the following characterise a ‘differentiation’-based business model?
1.High sales volume
2.High profit margin
3.Well-regarded brand
4.High-quality manufacture
Answers: • 1,2 and 4

9. Which item appears in both the balance sheet and the profit and loss account?
Answers: • Sales

10. A manager is seeking to introduce new working conditions. Which of the following is the best way to gain employees’ cooperation?
Answers: • Send an email to the entire staff informing them of the new conditions.


11. A tool for evaluating organizational performance across the full range of a business is known as a ‘balanced ________’.
Answers: • scorecard.

12. What is the main advantage of employing staff on a temporary basis?
Answers: • Improved productivity

13. Which of the following statements is false?
Answers: • Decision-making should involve key stakeholders.

14. Which of the following can be used as a term for Supervisor?
Answers: • Area manager

15. Which of the following is not a feature of a good organizational structure?
Answers: • Simple and flexible structure

16. Which ratio shows an organization’s effectiveness in minimizing production costs?
Answers: • Gross profit ratio

17. A member of the Board of Directors of a company who is not an employee of the company is called a——————– .
Answers: • non-executive director

18. Which one of the following best completes the sentence: “Division of work promotes ____________.”
Answers: • Effective management

19. What does the term ‘Unity of Control’ stand for under Principles of Organizing?
Answers: • That there should be a limit to the number of persons that can be supervised effectively by one boss.

20. The degree to which a company owns its upstream suppliers and its downstream buyers is known as—————- .
Answers: • monopolization

21. Which of the following is not a key function of leadership?
Answers: • Closely monitoring the execution of tasks.

22. Which two factors are combined to evaluate the size of risks facing an organization?
Answers: • Probability and Scale.

23. If a company’s productivity is rising, it means ———— .
Answers: • output is rising at a faster rate than costs.

24. Which of the following best completes the sentence: “Repetitive decisions are known as _____________ .”
Answers: • standard decisions

25. If a manager is attempting to establish motivational goals for his employees, which of the following should he do?
Answers: • Involve subordinates in the goal-setting process

26. Jack Smith was reviewing the performance of his employees and was trying to decide which of them could profit the most from some additional managerial involvement. Listed below are the four employees he is considering. Everything else being equal, which of the following employees will benefit from the additional managerial involvement as a result of his/her performance being most appreciated?
Answers: • Baker, who has been employed with the firm in a variety of related positions for nearly fifteen years.

27. Which one of the following is not the purpose of Performance Appraisal?
Answers: • It can serve as a basis for job change or promotion.

28. Delegation takes place when ______________.
Answers: • a superior abrogates responsibility for a task.

29. Which of the following is an external source of recruitment?
Answers: • Staff returning from maternity leave

30. Selling stock not actually owned in the expectation that the price will fall is known as———————– .
Answers: • short-selling

31. Why does a business analyze its financial accounts to assess its solvency?
Answers: • To check whether it can meet its current financial obligations.

32. A Mission Statement: ——————- .
Answers: • provides information as to what the organization is trying to achieve.

33. Which of the following is neither a cash in-flow nor cash out-flow?
Answers: • Depreciation

34. Which of the following is not a function of a ‘transactional’ leader?
Answers: • Recognizing and clarifying roles and task requirements.

35. In which of the following circumstances is the directive method of introducing planned change inappropriate?
Answers: • When the manager enjoys sufficient position power (e.g.: he/she has significant control over rewards and punishments).

36. Budgetary control systems involve ______________.
Answers: • Preparation of budgets

37. Which of the following are incorrect?
1.Policies are established after a thorough study and analysis of work. Procedures are often established without any study and analysis.
2.Policies help us in fulfilling the objectives of the enterprise. Procedures show us the way to implement policies.
3.Policies are specific and lay down the sequence of definite acts. Procedures are generally broad and allow some discretion.
4.Policies are general guides to both thinking and action of people at higher levels. Procedures are general guides to action only, usually at lower levels.
Answers: • 2 and 4

38. Which is not a characteristic of a ‘democratic leader’ as identified by Lewin, Lippitt and White?
Answers: • Involving subordinates in decision-making.

39. Which of the following is incorrect?
Answers: • Operations Research Techniques can be effectively applied in many situations where the underlying variables cannot be quantified, e.g. situations involving human qualities and interpersonal relations.

40. Which of the following activities should not be outsourced?
Answers: • Core business

41. Self-regulation, one of the characteristics of an effective leader, is defined as the ability to —–.
Answers: • control oneself and to reflect in complex situations.

42. Which of the following characterizes the difference between Managers and Leaders?
Answers: • Managers are concerned with directing others; leaders tend to do the work themselves

43. According to the team roles identified by Belbin, a ‘plant’ is someone who is————- .
Answers: • good at turning ideas into action

44. Which term refers to a document that sets out an organization’s ‘rules’ regarding a particular issue?
Answers: • Policy

45. An employee’s desire and commitment to perform that is manifested in job related effort defines his/her———————– .
Answers: • ability

46. Which term refers to an activity or a series of activities that transform inputs into outputs?
Answers: • Process

47. Computers have helped immensely in the design and development of products for the manufacturing sector. With reference to this statement, which computer-related technology supports the above statement?
Answers: • CAD

48. In the ‘situational’ leadership style, the manager is concerned with ___________.
Answers: • human relations and teamwork

49. Which of the following would help a company manufacture products to the standard required by the customer?
Answers: • Quality control

50. If the financial year starts in January, the Fixed Budget will be prepared ———— .
Answers: • a month or two earlier

51. Which term refers to an internal framework for ensuring that an organization behaves responsibly?
Answers: • Strategy

52. Which of the following statements is not likely to characterize a planning approach to strategy development?
Answers: • Strategies are developed by negotiation and bargaining between interest groups

53. Which of the following is correctly ordered as a Management Process?
Answers: • Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Co-ordinating, Controlling

54. What is a ‘stakeholder map’?
Answers: • A means of plotting the location of customers.

55. According to the Myers-Briggs classification of personality types, the opposite of ‘perception’ is————— .
Answers: • judgment

56. According to Bruce Tuckman’s model of group development, which is the second stage through which a team passes?
Answers: • Storming

57. There are some important measures which a company can use to determine the effects of training. Which of the following is not one of them?
Answers: • Job applications

58. Which one of the following best completes the sentence:
The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ is concerned with —————— .
Answers: • activities

59. Set-up costs that make it difficult for new companies to enter a particular market are known as——————— .
Answers: • barriers to entry

60. Which one of the following is another term for the Scalar Principle?
Answers: • Chain of Command

61. Which of the following defines ‘apprenticeship’ training?
Answers: • A method of training meant to give the trainee sufficient knowledge and skill in those trades and crafts in which a long period of training is required for gaining complete proficiency.

62. In decentralization, subordinates —————– .
Answers: • are no longer managed

63. If a subordinate is having difficulty carrying out a delegated task, what should a manager do?
Answers: • Be available as a role model and resource in identifying alternative solutions.

64. Which of the following are not legitimate risk management options?
1.Terminate
2.Turn
3.Tolerate
4.Treat
5.Test
6.Transfer
Answers: • 2 and 3

65. Which motivation strategy is characterized by a high emphasis on performance and a low emphasis on satisfaction?
Answers: • Imposing

66. Which of the following represents the implementation of a ‘Just-in-Time’ production approach?
Answers: • Receiving materials as and when they are required for production.

67. Which of the listed management functions involves creating an environment where everyone works together to achieve the common goals of the organization?
Answers: • Organizing

68. Which of the following statements regarding the five core job dimensions is true?
Answers: • The more autonomy in the work, the more responsibility the workers feel for their success and failures and the more committed they are to their work.

69. Recruitment, selection, and training is a function of————– .
Answers: • staffing

70. The ‘Principle of Order’ applies to————– .
Answers: • right person in right job

71. Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production, as well as the degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high-volume, low-variety?
Answers: • A front-office bank’s

72. In which order would the following strategic planning activities take place?
1.Evaluating performance
2.Devising strategy
3.Documenting plans
4.Executing plans
Answers: • 2, 3, 4, 1

73. Which of the following constitutes a fixed asset in a business?
Answers: • Stock

74. ‘Span of Control’ relates to the ———— .
Answers: • number of persons to be supervised

75. In which context are the terms Unfreezing and Refreezing used?
Answers: • Management of Change

Upwork General Management – Management Skills Test Answers

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Upwork PHP Test Answers – Part 3

1. Which subversion of PHP5 adds short array syntax?
Answers: • 4

2. In mail($param1, $param2, $param3, $param4), the $param2 contains:
Answers: • The subject

3. Name of the function to check the variable type is object
Answers: • is_object

4. What is the correct way to open the file “time.txt” as readable?
Answers: • fopen(“time.txt”,”r”);

5. Does PHP5 support Exceptions?
Answers: • Yes

6. How would you start a session
Answers: • session_start

7. ( (4 >= 4 && 8 < 1) || (44 == 33 || 5 > 3) ) will return
Answers: • TRUE

8. How can you enable the cURL extension?
Answers: • You should remove the semicolon in the front of “curl_extension” in php.ini.

9. $x = 10.88; echo (int) $x;
Answers: • 10

10. How can I identify the server IP address in PHP?
Answers: • $_SERVER[‘SERVER_ADDR’];


11. The function used to iterate over array and object.
Answers: • foreach

12. Which of the following function is used to check type of array
Answers: • is_array

13. (8 < 1 || 4 >= 4 ) will return
Answers: • True

14. $file = ‘sample.txt’; $current = file_get_contents($file); $current .= “Additional Info”; file_put_contents($file, $current); What is the meaning of above code?
Answers: • It means that certain string of which value is ‘Additional Info’ is added to the end of the file named sample.txt.

15. True or false? One can include (â?abc.PHPâ?) two times in a PHP page â??makeit.PHPâ?.
Answers: • True

16. What is the best way of writing an IF/ELSE statement on one line?
Answers: • echo ( $result ) ? “Win” : “Loss”;

17. Which of the following is not a boolean false
Answers: • 1

18. Name of the function to check the variable type is object
Answers: • is_object

19. function foobar( ) { $a = func_get_args( ); return $a[2]; } print foobar(‘a’,1,’b’,2); What would the output be?
Answers: • b

20. True of false? PHP provides the goto in the latest version.
Answers: • True

21. What is the best way to URL encode a string?
Answers: • urlencode( $str )

22. Which of the following is not related to file
Answers: • fappend

23. $a = &$b; $b = ‘Mary?’; print $a;
Answers: • Mary?

24. In mail($param1, $param2, $param3, $param4), the $param2 contains:
Answers: • The subject

25. A fatal error would be caught by
Answers: • E_ERROR

26. Which of these functions will not result in a runtime error if the file requested does not exist or can’t be opened?
Answers: • include()

27. How can we delete a file using php function.
Answers: • unlink

28. Which of the following functions split the string and return the array?
Answers: • str_split()

29. Which array function checks if the specified key exists in the array?
Answers: • array_key_exists()

30. Which values should be assigned to the variables $a, $b and $c in order for the following script to display the string Hello, World! <?php $string= “Hello, World!”; $a =?; $b =?; $c =?; if($a) { if($b &&!$c){ echo “Goodbye Cruel World!”; } else if(!$b &&!$c) { echo “Nothing here”; } } else { if(!$b) { if(!$a && (!$b && $c)) { echo”Hello, World!”; } else { echo”GoodbyeWorld!”; } } else { echo “Not quite.”; } } ?>
Answers: • False, False, True

31. How do you make PHP use a class file without having to require or include it manually?
Answers: • Define __autoload($class) magic function

32. What is the difference between $message and $$message?
Answers: • Classic example of PHP’s variable variables

33. What visibility level will this class property get in PHP5? var $cool = true;
Answers: • public

34. Which of the following is ternary operator
Answers: • ?:

35. How do you connect mysql with the use of PHP5 new functions?
Answers: • (both answers are correct)

36. Which of the following functions would one use to get the number of parameters passed?
Answers: • func_num_args

37. Which of the following is NOT supported in PHP5?
Answers: • Multiple Inheritance

38. The ____ operator is used to test if two values are identical in every way.
Answers: • ===

39. $text = ‘He went to the school.’; echo strpbrk($text, ‘w’); In the above code, what is the output?
Answers: • went to the school.

40. $a = array(“pomme”, “banane”); $b = array(1 => “banane”, “0” => “pomme”); var_dump($a == $b); What does-it print ?
Answers: • TRUE

41. What is the primary difference between a method declared as static and a normal method?
Answers: • Static methods do not provide a reference to $this

42. Which of the lines below will output the following string: “PHP is “super easy” to use!”
Answers: • echo “PHP is \”super easy\” to use!”;

43. Which function would you use to append one or more elements to the end of the array?
Answers: • array_push()

44. In PHP5 >= 5.3.0, which new operator was added?
Answers: • GOTO

45. What is PEAR in PHP?
Answers: • PHP Extension and Application Repository

46. Which of the following function is used to display the properties of variable?
Answers: • var_dump

47. How to open file in read/write mode?
Answers: • $handle = fopen(“http://www.example.com/”, “r+”);

48. The PHP syntax is most similar to
Answers: • Perl and C

49. Given: $email = ‘bob@example.com’; which code block will output example.com?
Answers: • print substr($email, strpos($email, ‘@’) + 1);

50. Which of the following is a php resource?
Answers: • (all of these)

51. Which of the following crpto return longest hash value
Answers: • sha1()

52. Which of the following functions allows you to store session data in a database?
Answers: • session_set_save_handler();

53. Which function will list files and directories inside the specified path?
Answers: • scandir()

54. Which of the following variable is not related to file upload
Answers: • max_execution_size

55. What is the difference between idate and date function?
Answers: • idate function always returns an integer, but date function returns formatted date string or FALSE.

56. Which function can be used to rename files?
Answers: • rename()

57. $sweet = array(‘1’ => ‘apple’, ‘2’ => ‘banana’); $fruits = array(‘delicious’ => $sweet, ‘sweet’ => ‘strawberry’); function myprint($item, $key) { echo “$key is $item\n”; } array_walk_recursive($fruits, ‘myprint’); In above code, what is the output?
Answers: • [1 is apple] [2 is banana] [sweet is strawberry]

58. Include files must have the file extension “.inc”
Answers: • No

59. What is output of the following code. $arr = “a”; $arr[0]=”b”; echo $arr; echo $arr[0];
Answers: • bb

60. What is the correct way to include the file “time.inc” ?
Answers: • <?php include “time.inc”; ?>

61. How do you kill or destroy a session?
Answers: • session_destroy();

62. To ensure that a given object has a particular set of methods, you must provide a method list in the form of an ________ and then attach it as part of your class using the ________ keyword.
Answers: • interface, implements

63. How to check if a directory exists?
Answers: • file_exists($name);

64. What is the best way to iterate and modify every element of an array using PHP 5?
Answers: • foreach($array as $key => &$val) { /* … */ }

65. The contents of an image file are stored in memory as $imString, but the original file is not available. Of the following, which uses the least amount of code and is a valid method of retrieving the dimensions of $imString?
Answers: • return getimagesizefromstring($imString);

66. Which of the following functions set options in curl script?
Answers: • curl_setopt()

67. Which of the following functions compare the substrings of the parameters?
Answers: • substr_compare()

68. Which of the following is a correct declaration?
Answers: • Static $var = array(10,’str’,3);

69. Which of following functions get a list of response headers sent (or ready to send)?
Answers: • headers_list()

70. How do you get header information from a URL?
Answers: • get_headers()

71. How should you filter variables before passing to header()?
Answers: • PHP’s doing this itself nowadays

72. Which variable type can NOT be used as a type hint?
Answers: • resource

73. What is the output in following codes? <?php $array1 = array(“a” => “green”, “red”, “blue”); $array2 = array(“b” => “green”, “yellow”, “red”); $result = array_intersect($array1, $array2); print_r($result); ?>
Answers: • Array ( [a] => green [0] => red )

74. $a = array(“pomme”, “banane”); $b = array(1 => “banane”, “0” => “pomme”); var_dump($a === $b); What does-it print ?
Answers: • FALSE

75. How do you instantiate a new object from class foo? class foo { function do_foo() { echo “Doing foo.”; } }
Answers: • $bar = new foo;

76. <?php abstract class Animal { function greeting() { $sound = $this->sound(); return strtoupper($sound); } function sound(); } class Dog extends Animal { function sound() { return “Woof!”; } } $dog = new Dog(); echo $dog->greeting(); ?>
Answers: • Fatal error

77. What will the following script output? <?php $a = array (‘a’ => 20, 1 => 36, 40); array_rand ($a); echo $a[0]; ?>
Answers: • Nothing

78. echo new stdClass == new stdClass, ‘-‘, new stdClass !== new stdClass;
Answers: • 1-1

79. Which function would you use to prepend one or more elements to the beginning of an array?
Answers: • array_unshift()

80. What is the function to report errors from mysqli functions or queries?
Answers: • mysqli_report();

81. $i = 5; print $i++ + ++$i;
Answers: • 12

82. Which of the following functions is a relative ftp function new to PHP5?
Answers: • ftp_alloc()

83. What will be output of this code. function test(&$var) { $var=$var-1; return $var; } $returnVar = test(50); echo $returnVar. ” is answer.”;
Answers: • Error message

84. What will be the result of the following code ? $a = 0 or 1; $b = 0 || 1; echo “$a, $b”;
Answers: • 0, 1

85. The number of parameters in setCookie function
Answers: • 7

86. What does php_strip_whitespace function return?
Answers: • Returns the PHP source code in filename with PHP comments and whitespace removed.

87. Which of following functions compute the intersection of arrays with additional index check and are defined newly in PHP5?
Answers: • array_uintersect_assoc(); array_uintersect_uassoc();

88. $file = ‘sample.txt’; $current = file_get_contents($file); $current .= “Additional Info”; file_put_contents($file, $current); What is the meaning of above code?
Answers: • It means that certain string of which value is ‘Additional Info’ is added to the end of the file named sample.txt.

89. How to open file in read/write mode?
Answers: • $handle = fopen(“http://www.example.com/”, “r+”);

90. What is the correct way to include the file “time.inc” ?
Answers: • <?php include “time.inc”; ?>

91. How can I identify the server IP address in PHP?
Answers: • $_SERVER[‘SERVER_ADDR’];

92. What Does OOM mean?
Answers: • Object Oriented Model

93. Which of the lines below will output the following string: “PHP is “super easy” to use!”
Answers: • echo “PHP is \”super easy\” to use!”;

94. What function in PHP allows you to find the position of the first occurrence of a substring?
Answers: • strpos()

95. True or false? PHP provides the goto in the latest version.
Answers: • True

96. How do you make PHP use a class file without having to require or include it manually?
Answers: • Define __autoload($class) magic function

97. In mail($param1, $param2, $param3, $param4), the $param2 contains:
Answers: • The subject

98. What is the primary difference between a method declared as static and a normal method?
Answers: • Static methods do not provide a reference to $this

99. How do you connect mysql with the use of PHP5 new functions?
Answers: • (both answers are correct)

100. Which of the following variables is not related to file upload?
Answers: • max_execution_size

101. What will be the output of the following code: <?php class A {} class B {} class C extends B {} class D { function sayHello (A $argument) { echo ‘$argument is an instance of A’; } function sayHello (B $argument) { echo ‘$argument is an instance of B’; } } $d = new D(); $c = new C(); $d->sayHello($c);
Answers: • PHP Fatal error

102. The contents of an image file are stored in memory as $imString, but the original file is not available. Of the following, which uses the least amount of code and is a valid method of retrieving the dimensions of $imString?
Answers: • return getimagesizefromstring($imString);

103. How should you filter variables before passing to header()?
Answers: • PHP’s doing this itself nowadays

104. Which of the following is a correct declaration?
Answers: • Static $var = array(10,’str’,3);

105. What result? $a = “1”; $a[$a] = “2”; echo $a;
Answers: • 12

106. $i = 5; print $i++ + ++$i;
Answers: • 12

107. What will be the array $b after executing this code? $a = array(1, 3, 5); $b = array(2, 4, 6); $b += $a;
Answers: • $b = array(2, 4, 6)

108. For PHP version <= 5.3, how can we activate error reporting for all levels?
Answers: • error_reporting(-1);